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Quoted By: >>16407434 >>16407442 >>16407450
I stumbled upon a Laci Green video the other day about consent and it got me thinking.
So let's say you have a few drinks, get drunk, and get behind the wheel. No one forced you to have said drinks and drive. Under the law, this is considered a DUI and you must take all responsibility for your actions under the influence.
Now let's say a girl and a guy are both drunk and they decide to have sex with each other. The girl wakes up the next morning to find herself completely unharmed, but she feels bad about what happened last night and/or regrets it. No one forced the two to drink. Let's say for the sake of the argument, these two don't know each other and only met when they wanted to have sex. Why is she allowed to say she was too drunk to give consent and make a claim of rape?
Also, if the man claims he was raped, why wouldn't that hold up in court? He was under the exact same circumstances as she was.
So let's say you have a few drinks, get drunk, and get behind the wheel. No one forced you to have said drinks and drive. Under the law, this is considered a DUI and you must take all responsibility for your actions under the influence.
Now let's say a girl and a guy are both drunk and they decide to have sex with each other. The girl wakes up the next morning to find herself completely unharmed, but she feels bad about what happened last night and/or regrets it. No one forced the two to drink. Let's say for the sake of the argument, these two don't know each other and only met when they wanted to have sex. Why is she allowed to say she was too drunk to give consent and make a claim of rape?
Also, if the man claims he was raped, why wouldn't that hold up in court? He was under the exact same circumstances as she was.
