Hello there, Im working on an uni assignment about the neanderthal extinction and this doubt raised on my mind.

You see, it turns out that Neanderthals and sapiens interbred but the result of such interbreeding was sterile(something aboujt the gene that codifies for the testicles) and since this happened on a period where the climate was very unstable, can I argue that such interbreeding was much more unlikely than it seems?

Also, did really neanderthals used sewing needles? Or just the sapiens?

PD: If you're going to call me stupid use arguments please

inb4>Do your own homework slacker.